God the Word is still speaking at the top of 54--vs 1-5 speak of an increase in the descendants of Israel. Israel will not be left without heir because God Himself is the "husband" and "God of all the earth." 6-8 talk about God's relatively short forsaking of Israel in relation to His everlasting lovingkindness, but it's still hard to see. Considering the act of God's forsaking Israel (7) and an "outburst of anger" (8) is hard when we are tempted to only acknowledge the love of God and ignore what real love looks like in different situations; especially when you're talking about the great God of all the earth who is our Redeemer. We don't like to think of God doing something like having His servant die for the sins of others, but that's exactly what God the Word is saying will happen. Verses 9 & 10, like in all texts, cannot be removed from their context here. God's confession of His anger and forsaking of Israel just now is not here contradicted so much as it is related to the flood of Noah's time. The end is not annihilation, God's lovingkindness still continues and His compassion both prompts and tempers His anger toward sin. Israel's city will be established with precious stones and righteousness (11-12, 14), receive instruction from the Lord (13), and be protected from enemies because it's actually God who orders destruction and protection (15-16). No weapon is going to prosper against Israel and God will be the vindicator of His servants (17).
So the speaker from the previous chapter is the disciple, a servant of God who is, at least up to this point, unnamed. Assuming, like I mentioned last time, the continuation of the previous action and discussion about what a disciple is (despite the chapter division), the same speaker is still "speaking" at the beginning of Ch. 51. Vs. 1-3 is addressed to the ones who "pursue righteousness, who seek the Lord" and is an admonition to remember the heritage of faith from which they came. The exile and humiliation of the previous chapters will be turned to "joy and gladness." Vs. 4-8 (and 2 as well) clarify a couple things, then, about the previous post I made, where there was confusion over whether or not the speaker was Isaiah, the Servant who was foretold, or someone else. Chapter 49 starts with a change in voice clearly indicated in vs. 3--if you recall from the end of Ch. 48 God "the Word" was still speaking and told His people Israel to say, "The Lord has redeemed His servant Jacob" (and possibly 21 too), to proclaim His powerful deliverance as they left the exile from Babylon. Then we see, from 49:3, that the "Me" doing the speaking in vs. 1-2 is the personified servant of the Lord, Israel. What Israel is saying in vs. 1-2 is a confirmation of the Lord choosing her as a nation, a name given by the Lord before it came to be, a voice to give words like a sharp sword (the meaning of which comes shortly), being protected and selected for the purpose that begins in vs. 3. The people of Israel are to be, collectively, God's servant "in whom I will show my glory." In Isaiah 48:1 God scolds the people of Israel, the house of Jacob, for their religious dumb-show. They may call on God and give the appearance of devotion, but "not in truth nor in righteousness." They lean on God, the Lord of Hosts (2), in this manner. But vs. 3-5 say how God was clear in telling the Israelites what was to come, long in advance, so they couldn't turn to themselves and assure themselves that their idols, which they'd been unfaithful with, had done it. What God is here speaking of, specifically, is not clearly articulated. It could be that He's referring to the Persians, Babylonians, Cyrus, etc. specifically, or generally to these kinds of events that were to be the results of the Israelites' unfaithfulness. Either way, they were told in advance by God that this would happen. Picking up where I am now in my personal study, in vs. 1-2 the Babylonian idols to Bel and Nebo are mocked as the lifeless chunks they are, in need of animals to carry their forms from place to place. This is contrasted with the Israelites (house of Jacob) in vs 3-4 where it is God who has both given them life (i.e. from birth) and carries them. They do not carry God (7), they do not provide for God (6), but God provides for and carries them--He is without equal (5). He will also deliver them. This language supposes there is something from which the Israelites need to be delivered. I've found that the past several months have involved me asking various people to weigh in on the thoughts they have (or have had) on passages that I've been studying. I like to search out the truth. It's been a long time since I've simply listened to something another believer has said, whether they're a pastor or not, and failed to examine the text for myself. I think that's important; otherwise, why would Luke state that the Berean's were noble to receive the message of Jesus with excitement and examine the things Paul said to see if they were true (Acts 17)? This post begins a new chapter in my faith walk, where I will endeavor to read through the Bible and "blog" my thoughts and revelations from the Word. I'm hoping this forum is a place for others to not only read along with me but to chime in with what the Spirit has revealed to them. That's the short answer. If you're interested in joining me, I'm thrilled to have you! |
AuthorThis blog is my process of struggling with God, reading to understand the truth and separate the facts of God from the fiction of thoughts and opinions. I invite all to enjoy the journey with me. Archives
July 2019
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